Dittos Posted July 19, 2005 Share Posted July 19, 2005 Hi, I'm going to proove to ya all that 1 = 2. I've made the statement with somebody else off another forum, in dutch so it's going to be hard to translate it in english, but i'll try. :wink: We presume that x = y ( if we wanna proove that 1 = 2 ) xÃÆââ¬Å¡Ãâò-yÃÆââ¬Å¡Ãâò=(x-y)(x+y) ontbind in factors ( dutch ppl help me on this one pls :lol: ) if u calc that u get x.x-y.y=(x-y)(x+y) Becouse we've said that x = y: x.y-y.y=(x-y)(x+y) we put y outside, becouse it's in both parts of our calculation ( :lol: ) y(x-y)= (x-y)(x+y) What's between ( ) in the left part ( so it's (x-y) ) we put in the right part y=[(x-y)(x+y)]/(x-y) We can ' delete ' (x-y) becouse u find it up and under in our calculation y=x+y We said that x=y so y=y+y If u calc y+y u get y=2.y Y is in both parts, so we can throw it away :lol: 1=2 Kthnx :P Btw; i don't know anything about math terms in english, so dutch ppl who can english, PM me with the faults :P) NEXT ONE: If today was yesterday, then tomorrow is today. So yesterday and today are the same? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
KnightLite Posted July 19, 2005 Share Posted July 19, 2005 Quite odd, I didn't really look carefully over it, i'm at a m8's house right now and his monitor twitches so reading anything gives you a headache. I'll check back when i get home tho.. - Only character in Runescape History maxed out in RSC and RS2 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Purecheese Posted July 19, 2005 Share Posted July 19, 2005 You divide by (x-y) since x=y you're dividing by (x-x)=0 which is, as we all know not allowed ;) Basically you're saying 2*0=1*0 which is true. then you divide by 0 and end up with 2=1. Sorry to give the answer so soon :P While we're at it, I'll add another need trick with numbers that's actually correct. 0.9 repeating = x (=0.999999999999...) 10x=9.9 repeating (=9.9999999999...) 10x=9+x 9x=9 x=1=0.9 repeating Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Dittos Posted July 19, 2005 Author Share Posted July 19, 2005 You divide by (x-y) since x=y you're dividing by (x-x)=0 which is, as we all know not allowed ;) Sorry to give the answer so soon :P Thank u for ruining my topci :lol: :wink: I'll post some other weird statements then Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
my_pet_worm Posted July 19, 2005 Share Posted July 19, 2005 try this, it = 1. anyone good at math will know why pi X pi /(divide) pi X pi it's obvious it =1 :D Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
How2PK Posted July 19, 2005 Share Posted July 19, 2005 Cheeseh is tet smart for tet tip.it fora! :lol: Signature by Maurice SendakWhen the stars make you drool just like a pasta fazool, that's amore! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Dittos Posted July 19, 2005 Author Share Posted July 19, 2005 try this, it = 1. anyone good at math will know why pi X pi /(divide) pi X pi it's obvious it =1 :D Nope U say that Pi x pi / pi x pi = 1 It's 2pi! Look, pi x pi / pi x pi = pi x pi / pi + pi x pi / pi = pi + pi = 2Pi 8) Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Mayjest Posted July 19, 2005 Share Posted July 19, 2005 I quit maths a month ago when I finished my last A2 exam. I'll be blowed if I'm doing more. Goals to get my skills back up to a barely respectable level on the high scores: Currently going for Bone to Peaches spell. It's amazing how boring doing the same repetitive task is! Stupid MTA Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rs_shark_fan_died Posted July 19, 2005 Share Posted July 19, 2005 Whoa, I didnt understand jack of that :oops: Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Zonorhc Posted July 19, 2005 Share Posted July 19, 2005 try this, it = 1. anyone good at math will know why pi X pi /(divide) pi X pi it's obvious it =1 :D Nope U say that Pi x pi / pi x pi = 1 It's 2pi! Look, pi x pi / pi x pi = pi x pi / pi + pi x pi / pi = pi + pi = 2Pi 8) Actually, no. pi^2 / pi^2 = 1 In much the same way as: pi^5 / pi^5 = 1 Remember that a number divided by itself always equals 1. Varrock Library: Shattered Sky | Silent Thunder | The Emperor's FinestAstri @ MythWeavers Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Rizla Posted July 19, 2005 Share Posted July 19, 2005 I'll be blowed if I'm doing more. If that was the case, i'm sure we'd all be doing math right now ;) Kirk and Lars I could handle. At the same time. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
KnightLite Posted July 19, 2005 Share Posted July 19, 2005 i think I just figured out why I failed math this year... - Only character in Runescape History maxed out in RSC and RS2 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Astralinre Posted July 19, 2005 Share Posted July 19, 2005 You divide by (x-y) since x=y you're dividing by (x-x)=0 which is, as we all know not allowed ;) Basically you're saying 2*0=1*0 which is true. then you divide by 0 and end up with 2=1. Sorry to give the answer so soon :P While we're at it, I'll add another need trick with numbers that's actually correct. 0.9 repeating = x (=0.999999999999...) 10x=9.9 repeating (=9.9999999999...) 10x=9+x 9x=9 x=1=0.9 repeating Another way to do that... 1/3 = .3 repeating 1/3 * 3 = 3/3 .3 repeating * 3 = .9 repeating .9 repeating = 3/3 = 1 :P Nice topic. "In so far as I am Man I am the chief of creatures. In so far as I am a man I am the chief of sinners." - G.K. Chesterton Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Mayjest Posted July 19, 2005 Share Posted July 19, 2005 I'll be blowed if I'm doing more. If that was the case, i'm sure we'd all be doing math right now ;) Ha bloody ha. So much for family friendly boards ;) Goals to get my skills back up to a barely respectable level on the high scores: Currently going for Bone to Peaches spell. It's amazing how boring doing the same repetitive task is! Stupid MTA Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mad4u689 Posted July 19, 2005 Share Posted July 19, 2005 try this, it = 1. anyone good at math will know why pi X pi /(divide) pi X pi it's obvious it =1 :D Nope U say that Pi x pi / pi x pi = 1 It's 2pi! Look, pi x pi / pi x pi = pi x pi / pi + pi x pi / pi = pi + pi = 2Pi 8) Actually, no. pi^2 / pi^2 = 1 In much the same way as: pi^5 / pi^5 = 1 Remember that a number divided by itself always equals 1. I think he was trying to go for the order-of-operations argument. That the original thing wasn't pi^2/pi^2, but rather (pi^2/pi) x pi. In which case the final answer would be pi^2, not 2pi. And nice job working out the error on the original problem, btw, KnightLite! Dittos: Today WAS yesterday, whereas tomorrow (from yesterday's perspective) IS today. Note the different tenses. "Is" is not the same as =. Thus, today is neither yesterday nor tomorrow, but simply today :D Everybody hug and spread the love :D Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Greatsilverwyrm Posted July 19, 2005 Share Posted July 19, 2005 The flaw in the 1=2 is that you only proved that 1x = 2y, so you can only get 1=2 if you assume that x=y.. It's like circular reasoning or something. I can't explain it flawlessly, but I beleive that's the error. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
misterxman Posted July 19, 2005 Share Posted July 19, 2005 Well 1/3 = 0.333333... but 0.333333... x 3 does not equal 1. Pixel sigs by me.Pixel Art Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
knives669 Posted July 20, 2005 Share Posted July 20, 2005 :shock: ......... I hate math... Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rocketman089 Posted July 20, 2005 Share Posted July 20, 2005 The flaw in the 1=2 is that you only proved that 1x = 2y, so you can only get 1=2 if you assume that x=y.. It's like circular reasoning or something. I can't explain it flawlessly, but I beleive that's the error. Yeah, I think they're called Logical Fallacys. They can be true logically, but they can't be proved. An example: Kenny lies whenever he says something. Kenny says something. Hence, you can assume he's lieing. I can't really explain the relevancy between that statement and the equation 1=2, but basically, it can be true, but only in one way. And in that one way, it's still not true. Basically an endless contridiction or proving it false or true, hence Circular Reasoning. Guh, I don't think that made much sense, but neither does what I'm trying to explain. Gamertag: King Arizona Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Astralinre Posted July 20, 2005 Share Posted July 20, 2005 The flaw in the 1=2 is that you only proved that 1x = 2y, so you can only get 1=2 if you assume that x=y.. It's like circular reasoning or something. I can't explain it flawlessly, but I beleive that's the error. Yeah, I think they're called Logical Fallacys. They can be true logically, but they can't be proved. An example: Kenny lies whenever he says something. Kenny says something. Hence, you can assume he's lieing. I can't really explain the relevancy between that statement and the equation 1=2, but basically, it can be true, but only in one way. And in that one way, it's still not true. Basically an endless contridiction or proving it false or true, hence Circular Reasoning. Guh, I don't think that made much sense, but neither does what I'm trying to explain. And if Kenny says that he always lies, what are we to make of that? :P Well 1/3 = 0.333333... but 0.333333... x 3 does not equal 1. .33 repeating = 1/3 .33 repeating * 3 = 1/3 * 3, correct? [.33 repeating * 3 = .99 repeating], and [1/3 * 3 = 3/3], which = 1 (brackets used for clarification) So, .99 repeating = 3/3 = 1 So yes, .33 repeating does equal 1. :P "In so far as I am Man I am the chief of creatures. In so far as I am a man I am the chief of sinners." - G.K. Chesterton Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Death_By_Pod Posted July 20, 2005 Share Posted July 20, 2005 You divide by (x-y) since x=y you're dividing by (x-x)=0 which is, as we all know not allowed ;) Basically you're saying 2*0=1*0 which is true. then you divide by 0 and end up with 2=1. Sorry to give the answer so soon :P While we're at it, I'll add another need trick with numbers that's actually correct. 0.9 repeating = x (=0.999999999999...) 10x=9.9 repeating (=9.9999999999...) 10x=9+x 9x=9 x=1=0.9 repeating Another way to do that... 1/3 = .3 repeating 1/3 * 3 = 3/3 .3 repeating * 3 = .9 repeating .9 repeating = 3/3 = 1 :P Nice topic. 2 more solutions: (1 easy, one not so) 1 = 1/3 + 1/3 + 1/3 Covert to decimal 1 = 0.999~ + 0.999~ + 0.999~ and 0.9 + 0.09 + 0.009..... 0.999~ is an infinite geometric progression so you can use the following formula (there is a long-ish proof for this that I will not put up here): a / (1 - r) in this equation a is the first term and r is the common multiple (what you multiply the progression each time to get to the next term) so: a is 0.9 and r is 0.1 in this case substituting in you get 0.9 / (1 - 0.1) = 0.9 / 0.9 = 1 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Greatsilverwyrm Posted July 20, 2005 Share Posted July 20, 2005 The flaw in the 1=2 is that you only proved that 1x = 2y, so you can only get 1=2 if you assume that x=y.. It's like circular reasoning or something. I can't explain it flawlessly, but I beleive that's the error. Yeah, I think they're called Logical Fallacys. They can be true logically, but they can't be proved. An example: Kenny lies whenever he says something. Kenny says something. Hence, you can assume he's lieing. I can't really explain the relevancy between that statement and the equation 1=2, but basically, it can be true, but only in one way. And in that one way, it's still not true. Basically an endless contridiction or proving it false or true, hence Circular Reasoning. Guh, I don't think that made much sense, but neither does what I'm trying to explain. Oh, I know full-well what circular reasoning is. I was saying that I didn't know if circular reasoning would be a good explanation of the flaw in the equation.. And yeah, .9 repeating does equal 1. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
unknownmasterofnothing Posted July 20, 2005 Share Posted July 20, 2005 .99 repeating doesn't neccessaryly mean it equals to one. It's so close that it might as well be one. The limit is so close to one that it might as well be one. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Greatsilverwyrm Posted July 20, 2005 Share Posted July 20, 2005 No, it is one. 1 - .9 repeating = 0. You can't have .0 repeating 1 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rocketman089 Posted July 20, 2005 Share Posted July 20, 2005 The flaw in the 1=2 is that you only proved that 1x = 2y, so you can only get 1=2 if you assume that x=y.. It's like circular reasoning or something. I can't explain it flawlessly, but I beleive that's the error. Yeah, I think they're called Logical Fallacys. They can be true logically, but they can't be proved. An example: Kenny lies whenever he says something. Kenny says something. Hence, you can assume he's lieing. I can't really explain the relevancy between that statement and the equation 1=2, but basically, it can be true, but only in one way. And in that one way, it's still not true. Basically an endless contridiction or proving it false or true, hence Circular Reasoning. Guh, I don't think that made much sense, but neither does what I'm trying to explain. Oh, I know full-well what circular reasoning is. I was saying that I didn't know if circular reasoning would be a good explanation of the flaw in the equation.. I know you know what circular reasoning is, it's just I was having a hand at trying to explain what you're talking about. Gamertag: King Arizona Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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